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Exam Code: 190-847
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 System Administration Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 134 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 John registered a new server. In which one of the following was the Server document placed?
A.NAMES.NSF
B.CERTLOG.NSF
C.CATALOG.NSF
D.DIRECTORY.NSF
Correct:A

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NO.2 When changing the order in which ports are listed in the server Setup Ports dialog box, where
does this also change the Ports listing?
A.In the server document
B.In the server notes.ini
C.In the server ports document
D.In the server configuration document
Correct:B

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NO.3 Recovery information has been configured for the Organizational Unit certifier Packaging. The
administrator has selected 8 administrators that can process recovery information, but 3 are
required to unlock any certified with the Packaging certifier. What three administrators in the list
must be utilized?
A.Any three administrators
B.The last three administrators
C.The first three administrators
D.Any consecutive three administrators
Correct:A

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NO.4 Server Fast Restart allows a new Domino instance to start while NSD diagnostics are being run
on the initial Domino server instance. Which of the following processes handle the initiation of a
new Domino instance?
A.NSD
B.faultmon
C.serverrecovery
D.diagnosticcollector
Correct:B

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NO.5 When the LDAP service can't find information for which an LDAP client is searching, it can
return a referral to the client. What Domino service does it utilize to provide this referral?
A.MAPS
B.Referrer
C.Replicator
D.Directory Assistance
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which one of the following group types is used to prevent access to Domino servers?
A.Mail only
B.Servers only
C.Deny list only
D.Access Control List only
Correct:C

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NO.7 The site update database in Domino supports which of the following security controls for
distributing updates?
A.Schema
B.Encryption
C.Author fields
D.Reader Fields
Correct:D

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NO.8 The user name that creates the original DB2 database must be a member of which of the
following groups?
A.SYSADM
B.MANAGERS
C.DB2ADMIN
D.ADMINISTRATORS
Correct:A

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NO.9 What two canonical name components are required when registering new users?
A.Common name and country
B.Organization and country
C.Common name and organization
D.Organizational unit and organization
Correct:C

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NO.10 Each time Melissa creates a certifier ID, Domino creates a certifier ID file and which of the
following?
A.Password database
B.Certifier document
C.Password hash file
D.Certifier database
Correct:B

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NO.11 It was decided to locate the DB2 server on the same physical box as the Lotus Domino server. In
this scenario, the DB2 database that stores Domino data is titled which of the following?
A.Lotus
B.Domino
C.NSFDB2
D.DB2Domino
Correct:B

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NO.12 Why did Tom designate Server1/Boise/Acme as the Administration Server for the Domino
Directory?
A.To make sure that all new users were registered on Server1/Boise/Acme.
B.To prevent users from making changes to the Domino Directory on Server1/Boise/Acme.
C.To force administrators to make all changes to the Domino Directory on Server1/Boise/Acme.
D.To ensure that the Administration Process would process all Domino Directory changes on
Server1/Boise/Acme.
Correct:D

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NO.13 When DB2 is the default database storage type, the databases are stored in what location?
A.In nsf files in the DB2 database
B.As nsf files on a remote db2 server
C.As files in the Domino server's disk space
D.In a DB2 database managed by the DB2 server
Correct:D

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NO.14 What is the maximum number of organizational units that may be listed in a hierarchial name?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Four
D.Five
Correct:C

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NO.15 Martin has been directed to configure Sametime integration for Domino Web Access (DWA) on
the Domino 8 server. Which of the following is required in the server document for Sametime to
function correctly inside of DWA?
A.Java Servlet Manager
B.HTTP Servlet Manager
C.Domino Servlet Manager
D.Sametime Servlet Manager
Correct:C

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NO.16 Which type of server installation provides standard Domino application services and custom
Domino databases for Notes and Web clients, as well as support for clusters?
A.Domino Utility Server
B.Domino Database Server
C.Domino Messaging Server
D.Domino Enterprise Server
Correct:A

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NO.17 A Configuration Directory utilizes a primary Domino Directory for which of the following?
A.To negotiate replication settings and obtain the administrative server requests
B.To obtain information on Person, Group, Mail-In Database, and Resource documents
C.To obtain information on connection, program, schedule and certificate documents
D.To allow remote users to passthru to internal Domino servers as defined in the Configuration Directory
Correct:B

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NO.18 While configuring an Internet Site document, Kira has left the option blank for which Domino
server hosts the site. What is the default action the server will perform with this option not
configured?
A.The Internet Site will not be loaded on any Domino server
B.The Internet Site will be loaded on all Domino servers in the domain
C.The Internet Site will only accept connections for the first IP Address on the server
D.The Internet Site will only accept connections for the hostname in the server document
Correct:A

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NO.19 The DB2 Access server facilitates your use of the Lotus Domino Designer view functions for
DB2. Which of the following is enabled by installing the DB2 Access server?
A.Replication
B.DB2 group locking
C.ACLs and reader lists
D.DB2 container storage
Correct:C

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NO.20 Users have been selecting the option for 'More Secure' logout when leaving Domino Web
Access. What function does this option provide?
A.This option forces the logout to occur via SSL over HTTP on the mail server
B.This option scrambles the user's Internet password in the person document for the next login
C.This option deletes all traces of Domino Web Access and all other Web pages in the temporary Internet
files folder
D.This option deletes all traces of the user's personal use of Domino Web Access and any Web pages
that they may have browsed, but keeps Domino Web Access program elements
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 190-510
Exam Name: Lotus (Domino R5 Designer Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Rene created a form read access list for a form in his web-enabled database.
Which is true about his form read access list when users access the database via the
web?
A. Web users not listed in the form read access list will not be able to open
documents created with that form.
B. Form read access lists are not supported when databases are accessed via the web.
C. Web users will see links to documents that they cannot access.
D. Anonymous users will see the documents regardless of the form read access list.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Lilly has created a form that contains a field of Authors data type. The Role
[Manager] is listed in the Authors field. Arthur is a reader in the ACL of the
database that contains this form and is assigned the [Manager] Role.
What can Arthur do with documents created from this form?
A. Read documents only since his ACL is Reader.
B. Edit all documents created from any form within this database.
C. Edit documents created from this form by other users and only read all other
documents within the database.
D. Edit and delete documents created from this form and only read other documents
within this database.
Answer: A

Lotus   190-510   190-510

NO.3 Jean Philip has set up SSL for the "Appointment" database and SSL is set up on the
Domino Server. He has also selected "Maximum Internet name & password access"
in the ACL Advanced settings as Reader. The group "Road Sales" is Editor in the
ACL. Default is Author. Some of the members of "Road Sales" connect to the
database through a Web client. The Web users authenticate using SSL Client
certificates.
What level of access will they have in the database?
A. No access
B. Reader
C. Editor
D. Author
Answer: C

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NO.4 There are both Web browser users and Notes client users at Adam's company. He
wants to allow Web browser users to access an application, but not allow access by
Notes client users.
Which one of the following would he assign in the ACL?
A. No Access to Anonymous, and no entry for -Default.
B. Reader access -Default-, and No Access to Anonymous.
C. Reader access to -Default-, and no entry for Anonymous.
D. No Access to -Default-, and Reader access to Anonymous.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Lars has a workflow application and would like to set up distribution of the
information through a form that employs automatic e-mailing. His users are
primarily remote.
Which is a reason why he would have chosen this method over a central shared
database?
A. Replication is faster.
B. Remote users only need access to mail instead of accessing a remote database.
C. Requires less disk space.
D. Workflow always takes less time.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Sven created a form read access list for a form in his web-enabled database.
Which is true about his form read access list when users access the database via the
web?
A. Web users not listed in the form read access list will not be able to open
documents created with that form.
B. Form read access lists are not supported when databases are accessed via the web.
C. Web users will see links to documents that they cannot access.
D. Anonymous users will see documents regardless of the form read access list.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Ed has created an access controlled section and has placed a sign-enabled field
within this section.
Which applies to the signature?
A. The signature applies to the entire document and is generated when the document
is mailed.
B. The signature applies only to the section and is generated when the document is
mailed.
C. The signature applies to the section and the document.
D. The signature applies only to the section and is generated when the document is
saved.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Hannibal wants to protect the HTML and graphics files used in his Web site
application.
Which one of the following will work?
A. Enforcing ECLs.
B. Enforcing consistent ACLs.
C. Creating File Protection documents.
D. This cannot be done using Notes and Domino.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the minimum level in the Access Control List that Larry can assign users
who must run a shared agent in the Certkiller Sales database?
A. Designer
B. Reader
C. Author
D. Depositor
Answer: B

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NO.10 Kristy created a database with several views. Her default view has a read access list
limiting use of the view to only some of the database users.
What will happen when users restricted from using the view open the database for
the first time?
A. Users will be prompted to choose an alternative view.
B. Users will see a view other than the default view.
C. Users will not be able to open the database.
D. Users will see the view even though they aren't included in the read access list.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Boris has chosen to use individual mail databases in his workflow application
because his users are remote and this will allow remote users to access mail instead
of a remote database.
Which is true regarding this workflow application method?
A. Workflow process will be quicker.
B. Forms must be stored with the documents that are sent and replication times may
be longer due to increased document size.
C. Requires less disk space than a central database.
D. Forms do not have to be stored with documents that are sent.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Ronny has submitted some technical support questions to the STS company on their
Web site. After 24 hours he goes to the STS folder on the site and reviews feedback.
When he selects the folder, he receives a message that he is not authorized to access.
However, he authenticated using and SSL Client Certificate and has Author access
in the database.
Why can't Ronny open the folder?
A. He needs Editor access or higher.
B. He needs to be added to the folder Read Access list.
C. He needs to be added to the Directly Link Access list.
D. He needs to be added to the View Read Access list.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which is a true statement regarding acceptable names that can be placed in the
ACL?
A. Wildcard characters (*) can be used in the ACL, except in the organizational unit
components of a name.
B. You can add to an ACL the names of any individuals with certified Notes user
IDs.
C. Hierarchical naming cannot be used in the ACL.
D. User, server, and group names can be added to the ACL but database replica IDs
are not an acceptable entry in the ACL.
Answer: B

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NO.14 APP1. NSF needs to replicate between two servers. ServerA should only be able to
add and modify information in ServerB's replica copy of APP1. NSF. ServerB
should be able to pull new and modified information from ServerA's replica copy of
APP1. NSF, but should not be able to write new or modified information to
ServerA's copy. This is not happening.
Which one of the following levels of access should each server have?
A. ServerA should have Author access to APP1.NSF on ServerB.
ServerB should have Reader access to APP1. NSF on ServerA.
B. ServerA should have Editor access to APP1.NSF on ServerB.
ServerB should have reader access to APP1. NSF on ServerA.
C. ServerA should have Manager access to APP1. NSF on ServerB.
ServerB should have Reader access to APP1. NSF on ServerA.
D. ServerA should have Editor access to APP1.NSF on ServerB.
ServerB should have Depositor access to APP1. NSF on Server A.
Answer: B

Lotus   190-510 exam   190-510

NO.15 Which one of the following access levels does Erhard need to create Roles in the
ACL?
A. Author
B. Manager
C. Designer
D. RoleCreator
Answer: B

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NO.16 Harry would like approval of vacation requests to bear his signature when the
document is mailed back to the person requesting vacation.
What does the form need to contain in order to have an electronic signature
attached to the document when mailed?
A. The reserved field "MailOption".
B. One sign-enabled field only.
C. Access controlled section.
D. A minimum of one sign-enabled field and a SendTo field.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Henry wanted to use the Groups and Roles dialog box to find out why Lisa, a
content creator, is unable to author documents in an application. However, the
dialog box was NOT available.
Doing which of the following allows the dialog box to appear?
A. Enforcing local encryption.
B. Enforcing a consistent ACL.
C. Placing Lisa's name in a role.
D. Increasing Henry's ACL access level to Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Ivy, the database manager, has not selected the Create personal folders/views option
for Olga, an Author in the database ACL.
Which one of the following statements describes how Olga is affected?
A. She cannot create any personal folders or views.
B. She can create personal folders, but not personal views.
C. She can create personal folders and views which are stored locally.
D. He can create personal folders and views which are stored on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Elvis does not see the salary documents in the Employee Personnel view.
What list does Elvis need to be a member of to see these documents?
A. View Access List
B. Form Read Access List
C. Form Create Access List
D. Database Access Control List
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which one of the following does this formula do when it is in a form action?
@MailSend("User1";"";"";" Urgent meeting";" Please
attend";"")
A. Sends a memo containing a subject and a copy to User1.
B. Sends a memo containing two body field entries to Use1.
C. Sends a memo containing a subject and a remark to User1.
D. Sends a memo with the document attached as a document link.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 190-980
Exam Name: Lotus (Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Operating Funda)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 201 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Tom set up a Domino domain and organization. Which one of the following describes the difference
between a Domino domain and a Domino organization?
A.There is no difference. Domains and organizations function in the same manner.
B.Domains refer to a company's hierarchical structure. Organizations refer to users who share a common
organizational certifier.
C.Domains are comprised of users and servers that share a common Domino Directory. Organizations
define security and naming conventions.
D.Domains define security and naming conventions. Organizations are comprised of users and servers
that share a common Domino Directory.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In what order would Richard build a naming convention for his organization where user names would
have the following format:
Chris Maxwell/Amsterdam/Acme
AJ Mathis/Sydney/Acme
A.Create a Common Name (CN) Certifier named Acme and then create Organizational (O) Certifiers
named Amsterdam and Sydney
B.Create an Organizational (O) Certifier named Acme and then create Organizational Unit (OU) certifiers
named Amsterdam and Sydney
C.Create a Organizational (O) Certifier named Amsterdam, an Organizational (O) Certifier named Sydney
and an Organizational Unit (OU) certifier named Acme
D.Create two Organizational (O) Certifiers named Acme and use one to create an Organizational Unit
(OU) Certifier named Amsterdam and the other O Certifier to create an OU Certifier named Sydney
Answer: B

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NO.3 Terry is working on a document in a database on a server that is DAOS enabled. While in the
document, Terry replaces the attachment with a new version. Which of the following occurs to the
attachment in the DAOS store?
A.The server adjusts references to the attachment in DAOS
B.The server removes the reference from all mail files that pointed to that original file reference
C.The server removes the previous attachment entirely from DAOS and inserts the link to the new
attachment
D.The server sends the full previous attachment to all user mail files that pointed to that original file
reference
Answer: A

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NO.4 Jose is creating a new password for himself. Which one of the following will "password quality
checking" indicate is the least secure password?
A.Mixed case passphrases
B.All uppercase passwords
C.Passphrases containing numbers and punctuation
D.Words found in Notes dictionaries during spell check
Answer: D

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NO.5 The server Web1/XYZ defaults to Server document settings to obtain configuration information for
Internet protocols when which of the following features is not enabled?
A.Internet Site documents
B.Global Domain documents
C.Single Sign-on documents
D.Web Configuration documents
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where does the Domino Server Setup program store the certifier ID file by default?
A.In the Domino Name and Address Book
B.In any network drive location that you specify during installation
C.In the directory you specify as the Domino data directory during installation
D.On the Domino Administrator's local machine in My Documents\Lotus\Certifiers directory
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your Organizational certifier is named Acme. Each city in your company has an Organizational Unit
certifier from the Acme certifier that references the city. Susan wants to create an Organizational Unit
certifier below the city Organizational Unit certifier. Which one of the following must she have to
accomplish this?
A.Reader access to the domain's directory
B.A copy of the Acme Organizational certifier
C.A copy of the city's Organizational Unit certifier
D.Copies of both the Acme Organizational certifier and the location's Organizational Unit certifier
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which one of the following group types is used to prevent access to Domino servers?
A.Mail only
B.Servers only
C.Deny list only
D.Access Control List only
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have the ability to set different levels of administration access to users. Which of the following
represents the hierarchy order for privileges from greatest to least access?
A.Server administrator > View Console administrator > Administrator > User administrator
B.Full access administrator > Administrator > Full console administrator > System administrator
C.Full Console administrator > System Administrator > Full Access administrator > Administrator
D.Full server access administrator > Console rights administrator > User administrator > View access
only administrator
Answer: B

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NO.10 Jon registered a new user. Which one of the following authentication elements is NOT found in that
user's ID file?
A.Public key
B.Private key
C.Certificates
D.HTTP password
Answer: D

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NO.11 In addition to Notes databases, which of the following files on a Domino server should be backed up in
order to ensure that new users can be created in case of loss of the server?
A.Cache.dsk
B.Certifier ID files
C.The user's desktop.dsk file.
D.The server's bookmark.nsf file.
Answer: B

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NO.12 In which of the following databases may you view all the database ACLs on a server by user name,
access level, or by database?
A.Log
B.Names
C.Catalog
D.Certlog
Answer: C

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NO.13 Ben attempts to send Jerry a Notes mail message. Both users are on the same mail server. Which of
the following paths will the message take?
A.The Router will receive the message from Ben and deliver it immediately to Jerry's mailfile via SMTP
B.The Router will receive the message from Ben and deliver it immediately to Jerry's mailfile via NRPC
C.The server will receive the message from Ben and send it to the mail hub for distribution back to the
mail server and then delivery to Jerry's mailfile
D.The SMTP task will receive the message from Ben and immediately send it to Jerry after following the
SMTP to Notes path defined in the configuration settings documents for the mail server
Answer: B

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NO.14 OCSP on the Domino server is enabled through which of the following?
A.Server document
B.Security policy
C.Server configuration document
D.Certificate authority database
Answer: B

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NO.15 While you used the Domino Administrator client, what two subtabs may be found under the Messaging
tab?
A.Router and Mailboxes
B.Mail and Tracking Center
C.Mail Users and SMTP Configuration
D.Mail Statistics and Mail Analysis
Answer: B

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NO.16 Susan has created a list of IP Addresses for the web server that are allowed access and a list of IP
Addresses that are denied access. Both are placed in the appropriate fields. Which field takes
precedence BY DEFAULT when the same IP address is found in both lists?
A.The Allow Access field
B.The Deny Access field
C.The Substitution Access field
D.An error will be presented stating an address may not be in both fields
Answer: A

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NO.17 Why did Tom designate Server1/Boise/Acme as the Administration Server for the Domino Directory?
A.To make sure that all new users were registered on Server1/Boise/Acme.
B.To prevent users from making changes to the Domino Directory on Server1/Boise/Acme.
C.To force administrators to make all changes to the Domino Directory on Server1/Boise/Acme.
D.To ensure that the Administration Process would process all Domino Directory changes on
Server1/Boise/Acme.
Answer: D

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NO.18 John registered a new server. In which one of the following was the Server document placed?
A.NAMES.NSF
B.CERTLOG.NSF
C.CATALOG.NSF
D.DIRECTORY.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.19 John is setting up a single domain with a single organization. As a result, all Domino server IDs must
be created using which one of the following?
A.The same cross-certificate
B.The same administrator certificate
C.The same country (C) certificate or a child of that country (C) certificate
D.The same organizational (O) certificate or a child of that organizational (O) certificate
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are building Domino Domain Monitoring probes in Domino 8.5 and wish to create a standard
Possible Solution for all of them. Which of the following document types allow this capability?
A.Modular
B.Embedded
C.Component
D.Corrective
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-201
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.m(jncia-m))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 How often are IS-IS Hello packets transmitted?
A. 3 seconds for DIS; 9 seconds for non-DIS
B. 9 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
C. 10 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
D. 10 seconds for all routers
Answer: A

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NO.2 Assume that a comparable configuration is applied to your peer in AS 11 and that bi-directional TCP
reachability has been achieved. Which EBGP configuration will allow the BGP session to become
established?
A. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
neighbor 10.0.3.6 { peer-as 11; } } }
B. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer1 { type external;
peer-as 11;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
C. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } group external-peer11 { type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor
10.0.3.6; } } type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
D. routing-options { }
E. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
F. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
G. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols {
H. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { } protocols { bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; protocols { bgp { group external-peer101
{ peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } } } }
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the three components of the ISO NET address? (Choose three.)
A. Area ID
B. N-selector
C. System ID
D. AS number
E. ISO number
F. MAC address
Answer: ABC

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NO.4 If all OSPF routers on a broadcast network have the same OSPF priority, what parameter is used to
determine the new BDR at the time of a DR failure?
A. area ID
B. router ID
C. loopback address
D. IP address of interface on broadcast network
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the first step in BGP route selection?
A. The local router prefers the route with the shortest AS_PATH.
B. The router first verifies that it has a route to the BGP Next Hop IP address.
C. The local router prefers the route from the peer with the lowest peer ID address.
D. The local router prefers the route learned from an EBGP peer over a route learned from an IBGP peer.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two purposes of the AS_PATH attribute? (Choose two.)
A. route selection
B. loop avoidance
C. determining equal cost paths for reachablilty
D. defining the application of other BGP attributes
Answer: AB

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NO.7 Three IS-IS routers on a broadcast segment have different priority values configured. Which router is
elected the DIS on that broadcast segment?
A. the router with the lowest priority
B. the router with the highest priority
C. the router with the highest System ID
D. the router with the highest IP address
Answer: B

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NO.8 What command would you use to view an IS-IS adjacency?
A. show iso neighbor
B. show isis neighbor
C. show iso adjacency
D. show isis adjacency
Answer: D

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NO.9 Two Level 2 routers are exchanging Hello packets with different Area IDs. What occurs between these
routers?
A. An Adjacency forms.
B. An Adjacency does not form.
C. An Adjacency forms but traffic is not forwarded.
D. No IS-IS PDUs are sent.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A firewall filter is applied as an input filter on a transit interface. What three types of traffic will this affect?
(Chose three.)
A. inbound traffic transiting the router
B. outbound traffic transiting the router
C. traffic destined to the Routing Engine
D. traffic destined to the interface address on which the filter is applied
Answer: ACD

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NO.11 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which CLI command is used to see the current OSPF link-state database?
A. show ospf database
B. show ospf neighbor
C. show protocols ospf
D. show ospf link-state
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are two ways that a valid IBGP peering session can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. via the accept x.x/y command
B. via TCP reachable physical interface addresses
C. via remote loopbacks with the local-address command
D. via UDP with the neighbor x.x.x.x command at the group level
Answer: BC

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NO.14 Once the TCP connection is established, which message type initiates the BGP peering process?
A. Open
B. Active
C. Update
D. Keepalive
E. Notification
Answer: A

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NO.15 During OSPF adjacency formation, in what state is a router when it is negotiating to be in charge of the
database synchronization process?
A. Init
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Exchange
Answer: C

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NO.16 How do you enable interface fe-0/0/0 under the [edit protocols isis] level to form both a Level 1 and
Level 2 adjacency?
A. set interface fe-0/0/0.0
B. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 all level
C. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 3 enable
D. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 1 level 2
Answer: A

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NO.17 By default, which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged
with the syslog firewall filter action?
A. show log
B. show firewall
C. show log messages
D. show firewall log
Answer: C

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NO.18 Firewall filters can be used to accept, discard, or reject packets based on _____. (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. MAC address
C. TCP or UDP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 What is the purpose of the OSPF link-state update packet?
A. describes a change to the OSPF hello timer
B. carries one or more link-state advertisements
C. establishes and maintains neighbor relationships
D. describes the contents of the entire link-state database
Answer: B

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NO.20 What type of OSPF router is responsible for redistributing routes into OSPF?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. internal router
D. backbone router
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JN0-130
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet specialist.e(jncis-e))
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Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which two services protect the ERX Edge Router from unauthorized CLI logins?
A. IPSec
B. SecureID
C. local passwords
D. default IP policy
E. RADIUS authentication
Answer: CE

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16. Your ERX Edge Router is constantly going to a boot## prompt.
What is the most likely cause for this condition?
A. bad SRP
B. low voltage
C. bad mid-plane
D. corrupted flash
Answer: D

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17. Which sequence of events describes the order used to restore normal router operation after
experiencing a corrupted flash?
A. initialize flash, reload, copy new system files from FTP server
B. reload, copy new system files from FTP server, initialize flash
C. initialize flash, copy new system files from FTP server, reload
D. reload, initialize flash, copy new system files from FTP server
Answer: C

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18. You are trying to recover from a corrupted flash.
Which configuration command configures an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 on the SRP management
interface when the ERX1400 router is at the boot## prompt?
A. ip address 192.168.1.1/24
B. ip address 192.168.1.1 subnetmask 24
C. ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
D. ip address 192.168.1.1 mask 255.255.255.0
Answer: C

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19. What describes the functionality of NTP when using multiple virtual routers?
A. All virtual routers can act as NTP clients and servers.
B. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client and a server.
C. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP server but all can be clients.
D. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client but all can be servers.
Answer: D

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20. Which configuration command is used to make the ERX Edge Router an NTP server?
A. set ntp-server
B. set ntp server
C. ntp-server enable
D. ntp server enable
Answer: D

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21. Which configuration command allows a virtual router to receive updates from a configured NTP
source?
A. ntp enable
B. enable ntp
C. set ntp-client
D. enable ntp-client
Answer: A

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22. Which configuration command is used to send debug level events to the console in real time?
A. log here severity debug
B. log destination console severity debug
C. log severity debug destination console
D. log realtime destination console severity debug
Answer: B

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23. Which command initiates a packet trace for all PPP packets on interface atm 6/1.33 ?
A. log filter debug pppPacket atm 6/1.33
B. log severity debug pppPacket atm 6/1.33
C. log filter debug category pppPacket atm 6/1.33
D. log severity debug category pppPacket atm 6/1.33
Answer: B

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24. Log messages are appearing very quickly on the console of your ERX Edge Router.
Which Privileged Exec command disables real-time console logging?
A. no log here
B. no log console
C. destination console severity 7
D. destination console logging off
Answer: A

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25. Which two configuration commands are required to direct debug level console logging to your current
ERX Edge Router Telnet session? (Choose two.)
A. log here
B. log telnet here
C. log destination console severity 7
D. log destination telnet severity debug
Answer: AC

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26. A log filter of log severity DEBUG pppPacket ATM 4/3.66 is configured within the category of
pppPacket.
Which configuration command removes this specific log filter?
A. no log severity pppPacket
B. no log severity debug pppPacket
C. no log severity pppPacket atm 4/3.66
D. no log severity debug pppPacket 4/3.66
Answer: C

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27. Which configuration command removes all log filters currently configured on the ERX Edge Router?
A. no log here
B. no log fields
C. no log filters
D. no log severity
Answer: C

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28. Which three statements describe macros on the ERX Edge Router? (Choose three.)
A. They prompt users for input.
B. They cannot prompt users for input.
C. They can be created on the router itself.
D. They are an embedded programming language.
E. They can be created on the user's workstation.
Answer: ADE

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29. Which command is used to execute a macro called setup.mac ?
A. macro setup
B. macro setup.mac
C. run macro setup
D. run macro setup.mac
Answer: B

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30. Which control expression must be the last line in all macros?
A. <# end #>
B. <# finish #>
C. <# endtmpl #>
D. <# terminate #>
Answer: C

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NO.2 In a Bridged 1483 network, which set of commands is used to configure an ATM subinterface?
A. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
description Company-XYZ
encapsulation bridge1483
ip address unnumbered loopback0
B. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
description Company-XYZ
encapsulation bridge1483
ip unnumbered loopback0
C. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
encapsulation bridge1483
description Company-XYZ
ip address unnumbered loopback0
D. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
encapsulation bridge1483
description Company-XYZ
ip unnumbered loopback0
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two types of routes may be advertised via EBGP? (Choose two.)
A. Routes that do not originate in the local AS and are learned by OSPF.
B. Routes that originate on the local router and are advertised into OSPF.
C. Routes that are transiting the local router and are BGP learned routes.
D. Routes that originate on the local router and are injected using a route map.
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Which CLI command displays the status of a PPP over Ethernet subinterface?
A. show pppoe interface
B. show ppp int state up
C. show ip interface brief
D. show pppoe subinterface
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three statements about Label-Switched Paths (LSPs) are true? (Choose three.)
A. LSPs are bidirectional.
B. LSPs are unidirectional.
C. LSPs can be signaled by CAC.
D. LSPs can be configured explicitly.
E. LSPs can be configured dynamically.
Answer: BDE

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NO.6 Which CLI command displays the VRFs that are operational within each virtual router?
A. show vir
B. show ip vrf
C. show vrf vir
D. show mpls vrf
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which configuration command places interfaces whose IP addresses are between 192.168.0.0 and
192.168.255.255 into OSPF area 0?
A. network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 0.0.0.0
B. network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0.0.0.0
C. area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0
D. area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which CLI command disconnects all subscribers on an ATM PVC?
A. clear port 4/3.99
B. logout port 4/3.99
C. clear subscriber port 4/3.99
D. logout subscriber port 4/3.99
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which message type is used to initiate an RSVP-TE label switched path?
A. path
B. resv
C. setup
D. session
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which three statements are true regarding the DHCP Internal Server? (Choose three.)
A. Can be in remote-access mode.
B. Can be in equal-access mode.
C. Can be in standalone mode.
D. Standalone mode is the default.
E. Equal-access mode is the default.
Answer: BCE

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NO.11 Is the IS-IS Designated Intermediate System (DIS) election process called Deterministic or Static and
why?
A. It is Static. If the priorities are equal for a new neighbor and the current DIS only.
B. It is Deterministic. If the well-known pseudonode and system ID is configured on the new neighbor only.
C. It is Deterministic. When a new router appears on a multi-access network with a higher priority value, it
is elected as the DIS.
D. It is Static. When a new intermediate system powers up on a multi-access network, even if it has a
higher priority, it may become a backup DIS.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which CLI command is used to set a Privileged Exec password of mypassword?
A. enable password 0 mypassword
B. enable password 3 mypassword
C. enable password 5 mypassword
D. enable password 10 mypassword
Answer: A

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NO.14 You would like to view all Fast Ethernet interfaces currently using VLAN tagging and the specific VLANs
each interface is using.
Which CLI command displays this information?
A. show fast interface
B. show vlan interface
C. show vlan subinterface
D. show fast interface vlan
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two BGP attributes are incorporated for loop prevention within an AS using a route reflection
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. AS Path
B. Next Hop
C. Cluster List
D. Originator ID
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: JN0-532
Exam Name: Juniper (FWV,Specialist (JNCIS -FWV))
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Total Q&A: 146 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the address of the multicast receiver?
A.234.9.8.42
B.192.168.10.2
C.192.168.20.10
D.192.168.20.200
Answer: D

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NO.2 What must be enabled to protect Phase 2 key exchanges?
A.Phase 1 PFS
B.Phase 2 SHA
C.Phase 2 3-DES
D.Phase 2 DH key exchange tiations? (Choose two.)
A.proxy-id, SA proposal list
B.IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C.hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D.SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two can be determined about the VPN? (Choose two.)
A.NAT-traversal is enabled.
B.The rekey interval is 8 hours.
C.This device initiated the Phase 1 negotiations.
D.The certificate used in this exchange is set to never expire.
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Which three statements are true regarding IKE Phase 1? (Choose three.)
A.Placing the SA proposal list in message 1 is an option.
B.The digital certificate is used to decrypt the session key.
C.The DH key exchange is used to validate the session key.
D.The DH key exchange and digital certificates are both optional.
E.The proxy-id is used to determine which SA is referenced for the VPN.
Answer: ABC

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NO.5 You have entered the command set ffilter src-ip 1.1.7.250 dst-ip 10.1.10.5 ip-prot 6
What will be the resulting output in the debug for which this was created?
A.If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has TCP as its protocol then it will be
captured
B.If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has UDP as its protocol then it will be
captured
C.If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has TCP as its protocol then it will
be captured
D.If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has UDP as its protocol then it will
be captured
Answer: C

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NO.6 Review the exhibit.
You've been asked to build a route-based hub and spoke network, with policy control for traffic travelling
from spoke to spoke. Which two of the following configuration options will meet this requirement?
(Choose two.)
A.Place the spoke tunnel interfaces in the trust zone and create policies on the spokes.
B.Place the spoke tunnel interfaces in the untrust zone and create policies on the spokes.
C.Create a single tunnel interface in the trust zone at the hub and enable intra-zone blocking.
D.Create separate tunnel interfaces at the hub and place them in different zones, then create policies at
the hub.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which two item pairs are exchanged during Phase 2 negotiations? (Choose two.)
A.proxy-id, SA proposal list
B.IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C.hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D.SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: AD

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the firewall administrator at the Storefront is complaining that when the communication to
the DataCenter1 fails, the preexisting transfers and applications are dropped when the traffic is switched
to DataCenter2.
Which statement explains this behavior?
A.SYN checking is enabled in the tunnel.
B.The weight value for the DataCenter2 is too high.
C.VPN monitor is misconfigured in the DataCenter2.
D.Phase 1 and Phase 2 negotiations to DataCenter2 did not occur on time.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which three OSPF parameters are interface parameters? (Choose three.)
A.cost
B.priority
C.neighbor list
D.summarization
E.advertise default route
Answer: ABC

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NO.10 You have created a virtual router called VSYSA-vr and made it shareable. You then create the VSYS
using the WebUI, telling it to use an existing VR and selecting the VR called VSYSA-vr.
What is the status of the virtual router after you create the VSYS?
A.The router will be the default router but will no longer be shared.
B.The router will be the default router and will still have a shareable status.
C.The system will not let you use a shared virtual router when you create a new VSYS. The initial virtual
router must be private.
D.The system will not create a private vr for the VSYS but will assign the untrust-vr as the default router.
The shared Virtual router will not be the default router.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have configured the following on your device.
set address trust MyPC 10.1.1.5/32
set address untrust CorpNet 10.10.0.0/16
set policy from trust to untrust MyPC CorpNet any permit
set int tunnel.1 zone untrust
set int tunnel.1 ip unnumbered int bgroup1
set ike gateway GW address 1.1.1.1 outgoing-interface e0/1 preshare Secret sec-level standard
set vpn VPN gateway GW sec-level standard
The tunnel interface is down, so the VPN cannot function properly. What is the problem?
A.The policy needs to have the action tunnel.
B.The VPN needs to be bound to the tunnel interface.
C.The tunnel interface needs to be placed in the trust zone.
D.The tunnel interface needs to be associated with the interface in the untrust zone.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A.set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B.set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C.set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D.set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C

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NO.13 To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A.zone
B.policy
C.interface
D.virtual router
E.virtual system
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Review the exhibit. Track-ip has failed on the device, but the device did not fail over to the second unit in
the cluster:
Why has failover not occurred?
A.The physical interfaces have not failed.
B.The track-ip interval is not sufficient to cause failover.
C.The track-ip address weight is not sufficient to cause failover.
D.The track-ip address threshold is not sufficient to cause failover.
Answer: C

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NO.15 During main mode negations a failure has occurred while using IKE certificates.
Which message pair would you review to troubleshoot this failure?
A.messages 1 & 2
B.messages 2 & 3
C.messages 3 & 4
D.messages 5 & 6
Answer: D

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the source IP address of the multicast traffic?
A.236.1.1.1
B.10.10.10.1
C.20.20.20.10
D.20.20.20.200
Answer: B

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NO.17 Review the exhibit.
Which two of the following elements must be configured on the ScreenOS device in order to support
PIM-SM? (Choose two)
A.A multicast control policy
B.A bootstrap router process
C.A unicast routing protocol
D.A static RP
Answer: AC

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NO.18 What must be configured differently for a route-based VPN and a policy-based VPN?
A.proxy-id
B.proposals
C.remote gateway type
D.binding the tunnel interface
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which CLI command identifies the multicast sources visible to your ScreenOS device?
A.get route pim
B.get igmp source all
C.exec pim interface all query
D.get vrouter trust-vr protocol pim
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which command is used to verify that IGMP is running correctly?
A.get route igmp
B.get igmp query
C.set igmp query interface e0/1
D.exec igmp interface e0/1 query
Answer: D

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