2013年11月30日星期六

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Exam Code: 6001-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Session Manager and System Manager)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 An IMS type feature server has been installed by another administrator beam. They
have also
configured Session Manager to route all incoming calls for user John Smith to be routed to
the new
feature server, It appears from traces and capturing network traffic that Session Manager
does indeed
route john Smith s incoming calls to the feature server, but that the feature server does not
appear to take
any action besides returning the request bock to Session Manager Which field has been
NCORRECTLY
configured?
A. Application Handle
B. Entity Link port
C. Orignating Application Sequence
D. Terminating Application Sequence
Answer: A

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NO.2 How is Call Admission Control enabled?
A. Call Admission Control is enabled in the SIP Entity by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per fall
and Managed Bandwidth
B. Call Admission Control is enabled on the Session Manager instance by specifying a value
for Average
bandwidth per can and Managed Bandwidth
C. Call Admission Control is enabled on a Location by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth
D. Call Admission Control is enabled on an Entity Link specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth on the Location screen in Session Manager
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which definition describes a Session Manager community?
A. A community represents a group of users in a single location or group of locations. A
community helps
define maximum numbers of users in each location for purposes of bandwidth management,
quality of
service, and Call Admissions Control
B. A community is a group of peer Session Manager instances in an enterprise organization.
Each
Session Manager in the community automatically shares configuration and policy data,
meaning that
administrators settings and policies only once and that all Session Managers will process
requests in the
same way
C. A community represents all SIP Entities known to a Session Manager it is through the
community that
data from SIP Entities can be collected and merged, ready tor easy analysis
D. A community is a sub-divided group of users in which half of the group make use of one
Session
Manager as their Primary while the other half make use of a different Session Manager as
their Primary
Each half also makes use of the other Session Manager as their Secondary for purposes of
redundancy
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the benefit of using the Communication Profile Editor to modify users?
A. It allows an administrator to change all the values of the Communication Profile settings
for multiple
SIP System Manager users at one time
B. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager user at one tine
C. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple SIP users
at one time
D. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple users at
one time
E. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager users at one time
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which two statements describe how adaptations affect the routing of a request?
(Choose two)
A. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered incoming
adaptation
B. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
C. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered incoming
adaptation
D. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
Answer: A, D

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NO.6 When you upgrade Session Manager and you had been using the hardware SM-100,
the network
connection of the SM-100 must be moved to which port on the Session Manager server?
A. eth2 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 2
B. eth2 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 3
C. eth0 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 1
D. eth0 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 0
Answer: B

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NO.7 Session Manager has a routing policy that routes calls made to any number beginning
with 100
to SIP
Entity X. However, sip: 1001@avaya com
is the SP communication profile address of user Y, User Y is
not currently registered (signed in )with Session Manager What will happen if Session
Manager receives
a call addressed to sip 1001@avaya com
and exactly why?
A. It depends on the time ranges of the policy If the call is placed inside a defined tine range
for the policy,
the call will be routed to destination X If not, then Session Manager will attempt to route the
call to user Y.
Since Y is not registered, the call will timeout, and the call will fail
B. Since user Y is not currently registered, the call will be handled by the routing policy. If the
call is placed
during a time rage specified by the call policy, then the call will be routed to destination X. If
not, then the
call will fail
C. Since the destination URI matches a communication profile SIP handle, Session Manager
will not use
the routing policy in handing the call The call will fail since user Y is not currently registered
D. Since the destination URI matches a routing policy dial pattern, Session Manager will give
no
consideration to the user Y registration status, xx the call is made during a time rage for the
policy, the
policy will be applied and the will be routed to be destination X. If not, then the orignal URL of
sip
1001@avaya com will be used as the destination to which Session Manager will route the
call
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which component of the Communication Profile can be changed by modifying a user
via
Communication Profile Edition?
A. Communication Address
B. Session Manager Profile
C. Endpoint Profile
D. Messaging Profile
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are two outcomes of running SMnetSetup on a server that has an existing
installation of Session
Manager? (Choose two)
A. The network and date/time is configured on the server
B. A system administrator login will be created
C. The same version of the Session Manager software currently installed is re-installed
D. The current version of the Session Manager software is upgraded
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 Which URL should be used to access the web console to deploy System Manager?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/Webconsole
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager (R5.2.1) Implementation Exam)
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NO.1 Which three settings need to be configured on a Layer 2 device? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. port speed
C. IP address
D. default gateway
F. routing interface
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Before IPSI cards can become active on a new Communication Manager system,
which screen must be
accessed to enable IPSI control of the Port Networks?
A. system-parameters ip-options
B. system-parameters ipsi-option
C. system-parameters port-networks
D. system-parameters ipserver-interface
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer asks that the current subnet mask assigned to a remote Avaya G450
Media Gateway
Primary Management interface (PM) be verified. Which two commands identity the
information requested?
(Choose two.)
A. show ip-info
B. show running-config
C. show interface vlan (vlan #)
D. show configuration media-gateway
E. show system
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 A customer users S8510 server with a Media Gateway he necessary components or
adding additional
DCP phones to the system, including a new G650. Which three tasks need to be performed
while
installing the additional requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cable the two G650 carriers with a TDMLAN Bus Extender cable
B. Se the proper carrier address ID for the second G650 carrier
C. Add additional 2GB of RAM to the SB5 10 server.
D. Remove the right ITMLAN bus terminator from the bottom GB50 carrier and install the bus
terminator
at the left end of the TDWLAN bus on the G650 carrier directly above.
E. The new digital line card must be installed in slot 2 of the new G650.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 What are two ways of obtaining the RFA Module ID (MID) and System ID (SID)?
(Choose two.)
A. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command statuslicense-V .
B. From the CM SAT issue the command list configuration software-versions .
C. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command systat .
D. From the CM SAT issue the command display system-parameters customer-options .
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 A Customer has 1200 IP phones in their solution and they are looking for redundancy
and load
balancing How many CLAN s are recommended for their IP phone registration and signaling?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.7 At a new deployment the customer has a total of 2,000 subscribers at their main
location. They do not
need redundancy in their solution Which Media ServerMedia Gateway combination should be
used for
this deployment.?
A. S8800 Simplex with G450
B. S8800D with G450
C. S8300D with G430
D. S8800 Duplex with G650
Answer: A

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NO.8 The Avaya G450 Media Gateway can be configured to function as a DHCP (Dynamic
Host
Configuration Protocol) client DHCP client enable the G450 to receive an IP address from a
DHCP server,
according to the DHCP client-server protocol. As an option, the G-450 DHCP client can also
request to
receive which three types of IP-related information? (Choose three.)
A. a list all H 248 Media Gateways in the system
B. a Domain Name
C. a list of default routers
D. a list of all registered IP Phones
E. a list of available DNS servers
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.9 A technician is testing calls from IP phones at a remote location operating on a
G450VLSP gateway to
main location served by S83XXG450 over the WLAN Busy tones are received when multiple
calls
between the two locations are already active. Two network regions and G711 and G729
codec server has
been set up Which two steps must be taken to ensure the branch IP phones are using he
minimum WAN
bandwidth when calling main location stations?
(Choose two.)
A. Assign branch IP Phones to the G450 LSP as its call server in ip-network-region 2 form.
B. Assign G.729 as primary codec in the Station Form for the branch IP phones.
C. Use the ip-network-map form to assign the branch IP phones to network region2.
D. Create a third Codec Set and assign to the G450 Gateway in ip-network-region 2 form.
E. Verify calls between NRI and NR2 use G.729 Codec in ip-network-region 1 form.
Answer: CE

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NO.10 Which two statements about the installing and cabling of the Media Gateway G650 are
true?(Choose
two.)
A. Mount the A carrier at the bother of the rack
B. Mount the A carnet in the uppermost position in the rack
C. In a multiple Media Gateway GB50 configuration, the G650s an be allocated in different
racks if long
TDMLAN cables are used to interconnect the 850s.
D. In a multiple Media Gateway G650 configuration put the G65s in the rack with no vertical
pace between
them.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 3102
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Digit Conversion in Adaptation can be specified to modify "origination" type headers.
Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

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NO.4 Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main
site
and Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP
Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

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NO.5 A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been
asked to apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new
Application Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in
the Berlin location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating
Application Sequence drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the
Berlin location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application
Sequence.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.7 After a power failure or database crash, the Postgres database may become corrupted and
the
Postgres server may not restart.
The recovery action is to clear the writer-Ahead Log (WAL) and optionally reset other control data,
using which command?
A. pg_resetxlog
B. pg_clearwal
C. pg_dump
D. service postgresq1 restart
E. service wall restart
Answer: A

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NO.8 During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that
the
Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session
Manager but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password
is valid In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again
in Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system
manger?
(Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. Undefined
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 When performing a remote backup of system Manager data the administrator is asked for a
user
name and password. Which statement best explains why a user name and password are
required?
A. The backed-up data file is encrypted. The username and password are used in encryption
process and subsequently to access the file on restoring backed up data.
B. The backed-up data is stored on a remote server using SCP. The user name and password are
used to login remote server.
C. Because System Manager Date is being exported from the server for security and
authentication purpose system Manager once again checks the administrator's credentials.
D. All System Manager Data is backed up to common storage repository setup during installation.
For system Manager to access the repository the correct user name and password must be
supplied.
Answer: B

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Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A technician has been asked to generate outbound and multimedia reports based on data stored
within the Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) database. The technician must also access multimedia
data sources through the Report Creation Wizard for reporting customization. The CCMM server has
been added to the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA).
Which additional step is required to complete this task?
A. Assign the CCMM server as a reporting server for the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
B. Add the Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) server to theCCMA
C. Add the Microsoft Exchange server to the CCMA
D. Assign the CCT server as a reporting server for the CCMS
Answer: A

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NO.2 A technician has installed Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) within the Contact Center environment.
Multimedia skillsets must be defined in the Contact Center Administration (CCMA) for multimedia routing
to occur.
What name convention differentiates multimedia skillsets from voice skillsets?
A. Add a multimedia suffix to the skillset name
B. Add a multimedia prefix to the skillset name
C. Add a multimedia disposition code to the skillset name
D. Add multimedia to the skillset name.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The technician has installed a Contact Center multimedia (CCMM)email and web services to the
Contact Center solution.
What do the customers email and web server connect to?
A. Customer LAN
B. Contact Center Server Subnet
C. Customer server ELAN
D. Contact Center Server ELAN
Answer: A

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NO.4 A technician is adding an agent in the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) utility. But no
option to add Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) user account details is presented.
What option must be taken to solve this problem?
A. The agent user type must be set to supervisor agent
B. Enter the SIP address of the agent ­ t he vo i ce u ri se r ve r
C. The Create CCT agent
option must be selected
D. The agent first and last name must be populated
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where can the settings are configured for the inbound mail handler (IMH) such as the time between
intervals?
A. Through the Contact Center Manager Administration Network Configurations screen
B. Through the email server
C. Through the Outbound Campaign Manager
D. Through the Multimedia Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.6 The technician needs to install an Avaya Aura Contact center in a co-resident configuration to support a
contact center with less than 200 agents or less than 12000 calls per hour. The Contact Center Support
Multimedia Outbound and Universal Networking. The co-resident applications link through Contact Center
Manager Server, License Manager, Contact Center Manager infrastructure, Communication Control
Toolkit, Contact Center Multimedia, Server Utility and Avaya Media Server. For this installation, what is the
drive letter and size of the hard disk partition required for the Avaya Aura Contact Center application?
A. C:\ and 60 GB
B. D:\ and 80 GB
C. E:\ and 120 GB
D. F:\ and 300 GB
Answer: B

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NO.7 A technician has installed Communication Control Toolkit (CCT). Which three elements are added to the
event viewer? (Choose three)
A. NCCT Call Log
B. NCCT Security
C. NCCT Audit Log
D. NCCT Error Log
E. NCCT System Log
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.8 A network drive is being mapped that will be used to setup the Contact Center Multimedia database.
The following information is provided:
-The Contact Center Multimedia server name is CCMM001
-The Contact Center Multimedia server IP address is 192.167.140.15
-The backup server name is backup004
-The backup server IP address is 192.167.140.20
-The backup folder name is dbbackup
What is the UNC path for the mapped network drive.?
A. \192.167.140.15\dbbackup
B. \CCMM001\dbbackup
C. \192.167.140.20\dbbackup
D. \dbbackup\backup004
Answer: B

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NO.9 An agent with Avaya Aura Agent Desktop cannot log into the Contact Center. The technician needs to
verify network connectivity from the agent PC to the Contact Center Multimedia server.
Which command is used to verify the physical network connection between agent PC to the CCMM
server?
A. Arp
B. Ping
C. Tracert
D. Ipconfig
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have installed Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) and need to add the CCT server in the Contact
Center Administration (CCMA) web interface and associate it to a Contact Center Manager Server
(CCMS). After adding the CCT server, you are unable to associate it with the CCMS, what is a problem
with this installation?
A. No CCT users have been created
B. The CCT server does not have valid licenses
C. The CCT server has not been added in CCMA
D. Open Queue has not been enabled on the CCMS
Answer: D

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Exam 3202 VCE

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Exam Code: 3202
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Conferencing (R7.x) Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the requirement for Avaya Media Servers to be grouped into an Avaya Media Server
Cluster?
A. They must share the system default setting.
B. They must share common power supply.
C. They must share the same physical location.
D. They must share the same server name.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which SIP Monitoring field must be selected to allow the System Manager to manage
bandwidth
on the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 SIP Entity?
A. SIP Link Monitoring
B. Supports Call Admission Control
C. Primary Session Manager Bandwidth Association
D. SIP Domain
Answer: A

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NO.3 On the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system, which two actions are involved in configuring the
Media Server and Media Server cluster? (Choose two)
A. Log onto Provisioning Manager and configure it under “Conference of Service”.
B. Log onto the EM console, and configure it in the sub menu “Media Server Resource” under the
Feature Server Elements.
C. Log on to Provisioning Manager and configure “Media Server Resource” under System
Management Tab.
D. Log onto WCS server and configure the Media Resource in the Collaboration Agent window.
Answer: B

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NO.4 An administrator has a new license file for Avaya Aura® conferencing 7.
Which step should the administrator take to install the new license file?
A. Log onto the Communications Manager CDOM, then go to license and copy and paste the new
license file.
B. Log onto the Conferencing 7, then go to Element Manager and upload the new license file.
C. Log onto System Manager, then go to License and upload the new license file.
D. Log onto the System Manager CDOM, then go to Security and copy and paste the new license
file.
Answer: B

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6. The Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system has 10 components.
Which two components are parts of the Web Server Group? (Choose two.)
A. Web Collaboration Management Server (WCMS)
B. Avaya Media Server (AMS)
C. Document Conversion Server (DCS)
D. Application Server (AS)
Answer: A,B

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7. During installation of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software, which prompt will the installer
receive?
A. The staging username
B. The deployment type or staging file to be used
C. The operations file be used
D. The operations file or deployment name to be used
Answer: B

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8. The conferencing moderator dialed into the conference room successfully using moderator
code,
and was also able to successfully launch Collaboration Agent. However, the web conference could
not be launched from the Collaboration Agent.
What is causing this problem?
A. During the conference user provisioning, the conference administrator did not enable the Web
Conferencing Server feature specific to this user.
B. The web conferencing URL was not added to the hosts file on the Media Server.
C. The Web Conference Server Was not added or configured in Provisioning manager.
D. The Document Conversation Server was not configured.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When viewing alarms in the browser, what is the default order that alarms appear?
A. Warning, Minor, Major, Critical
B. Major, Critical, Minor, Warning
C. Minor, Warning, Critical, Major
D. Critical, Major, Minor, Warning
Answer: A

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Exam Code: SABE301
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - BusinessObjects Enterprise XI - Level Two)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C

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NO.2 When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, C, D, E

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NO.4 What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the Desktop
Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A

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NO.5 Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A, B

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NO.6 A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running
on-demand reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C

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NO.9 When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, B, C, E

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NO.11 Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups? (Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B, C

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NO.12 Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server? (Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.13 Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B

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NO.14 When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.15 Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to
add another Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports
Job Server service. Using the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager,
which three tasks must you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B, C, D

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Exam Code: 050-V40-ENVCSE02
Exam Name: RSA (RSA enVision Certified Systems Engineer 4.0 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the log data collection methods listed below do NOT require the configuration of a service
before RSA enVision can recognize a device using that collection method? (Choose two)
A. Syslog
B. ODBC
C. SNMP
D. Log file FTP
E. Checkpoint LEA API
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 The exhibit shows block diagrams describing an enVision LS Site with a Database Server (D-SRV),
Application Server (A-SRV), and two Local Collector (LC1 and LC2) components. Which diagram shows
the correct arrangement?
A. Diagram A
B. Diagram
B C. Diagram C
D. Diagram D
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following describes the timestamp that is shown in the Event Viewer Date/Time field?
A. The timestamp is from the source device for that event.
B. The timestamp is from the enVision collector that is prepended to the event.
C. The timestamp indicates the time the event was first viewed in Event Viewer.
D. The timestamp indicates the elapsed time between event origination and capture.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Assuming that a <device>msg.xml file exists for a device and a collected log message has a match in
the <device>msg.xml, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A. The device is a supported device.
B. The LEA client service must be installed.
C. The ODBC standard database access method is being used.
D. The message can be parsed to the appropriate enVision database table.
E. The device is probably producing logs in the Unix syslog or SNMP format.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Within the RSA enVision console, what should you reference to determine if enVision's standard reports
pertain to the Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) or the BASEL II standards?
A. The VAM assessment control panel under the 'Compliance >> Standards' tab.
B. The enVision administrative interface which, by default, includes both SOX and BASEL II reports.
C. The Best Practices tool section of the 'Overview' tab which provides an overview with links to...
D. The Compliance Report Filter (CRF) which can be downloaded from the RSA enVision Support...
Answer: C

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NO.6 The RSA enVision Event Viewer displays information from what source?
A. Packager "nuggets".
B. NIC Reader Service database.
C. Report RDB relational database.
D. Internet Protocol Database (IPDB).
Answer: D

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NO.7 In general, RSA enVision's security information and event management functions include which of the
following? (Choose two)
A. Storage of log data.
B. Collection of log data.
C. Distribution of log data.
D. Filtering of regulatory log data.
E. Selective rule-based log deletion.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about the RSA enVision ES Series appliance is NOT true?
A. The ES Series supports options for external data storage.
B. The ES Series is designed to operate in a stand-alone non-distributed mode.
C. The ES Series contains all three RSA enVision functional components in a single appliance.
D. The ES Series consists of three appliances each providing collection, data management, and analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the primary difference between the LC5 and LC10 local collector units?
A. Base storage capacity.
B. Events Per Second (EPS) capability.
C. Physical size and weight of the units.
D. Type of Database Server to which they may be attached.
Answer: B

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NO.10 In RSA enVision architecture, what best defines an enVision "Domain"?
A. One or more Sites working together.
B. The set of servers that make up a Master site.
C. The set of Collectors (local and remote) within one Windows domain.
D. All network information events collected from a single Windows domain.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ML0-220
Exam Name: Mile2 (Certified Network Security Administrator..)
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Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which out of the following is/are preventive measures against password sniffing?
A. Passwords must not be sent through email in plain text
B. Passwords must not be stored in plain text on any electronic media
C. Passwords may be electronically stored if encrypted
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following c1assify under techno crime?
A. Stolen customer account details
B. Virus attack
C. Server failure
D. Hurricane
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is TRUE then transmitting Secret Information over the
network?
A. Secret Information should be transmitted in an encrypted form
B. Secret Information should be transmitted as a plain-text
C. Secret Information should be transmitted in a compressed form
D. Secret Information should be transmitted along with user id
Answer: A

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NO.4 An alternate site configured with necessary system hardware, supporting
infrastructure and an on site staff able to respond to an
activation of a contingency plan 24 hours a day,7 days a week is a
A. Hot site
B. Cold site
C. Warm site
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.5 The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) standard is used for digital music.
Which OSI layer does this standard belong to?
A. Session
B. Data Link
C. Application
D. Presentation
Answer: D

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NO.6 The _____ application provides IP address-to-hostname or vice-versa lookup:
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. DNS
D. ICMP
Answer: C

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NO.7 Can a user use Personal Certificates to control server access?
A. SSL can also be used to verify the users' identity to the server
B. NO, there is no such method
C. It can be used through web security
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are the challenges associated with VPN implementation?
A. Complexity of infrastructure
B. Addressing and routing and administration
C. Difficulty with centralized management of client policy
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.9 Your company's off site backup facility is intended to operate an information
processing facility, having no computer or
communications equipment, but having flooring, electrical wiring, air conditioning,
etc. This is better known as a____
A. Hot site
B. Duplicate processing facility
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT a good practice for audit logs?
A. Audit Logs should be accessible to all users at all times
B. Audit Logs should be accessible to security personnel only
C. Audit Logs should contain unsuccessful login attempts
D. Audit Logs should not contain any passwords
Answer: A

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NO.11 The most common method of social engineering is:
A. Looking through users' trash for information
B. Calling users and asking for information
C. E-mailing users and asking for information
D. E-mail
Answer: B

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15.The full form of IDS is ____________
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Intrusion Deactivation System
C. Information Distribution System
D. Intrusion Detection Software
Answer: A

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17.What is an Intranet?
A. A private network using World Wide Web technology
B. A private network using digital telephony services
C. A public network using World Wide Web technology
D. A public network using digital telephony services
Answer: A

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18.Which of the following is the best description of" separation of duties"?
A. Assigning different parts of tasks to different employees
B. Employees are canted only the privileges necessary to perform their tasks
C. Each employee is granted specific information that is required to carry out the job
function
D. Screening employees before assigning them to a position
Answer: A

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19.Who is the main person responsible for installation and maintenance of the
computer systems?
A. Chief Executive Officer
B. System Supplier
C. System Designer
D. Business Process Owner
Answer: B

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20.You have a network address of 196.202.56.0 with four subnets. You wont to allow
for maximum number of Hosts. What is the
subnet mask you need to apply?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.224.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is true about authentication?
A. Authentication means that information can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
B. Authentication means that passwords can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
C. Authentication means the positive verification of the user/device ma system
D. Authentication means that only authorized persons modify information
Answer: C

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NO.13 Firewalls at this level know a great deal about what is going on and can be very
selective in granting access:
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 6
D. Layer 7
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following rules related to a Business Continuity Plan/Disaster
Recovery Plan is not correct?
A. In order to facilitate recovery, a single plan should coverall locations
B. There should be requirements for forming a committee to decide a course of action.
These decisions should be made ahead of time
and incorporated into the plan
C. In its procedures and tasks, the plan should refer to functions, not specific individuals
D. Critical vendors should be contacted ahead of time to validate equipment that can be
obtained in a timely manner
Answer: A

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NO.15 Zip/Jaz drives, SyQuest, and Bemoulli boxes are very transportable and are often
the standard for:
A. Data exchange in many businesses
B. Data change in many businesses
C. Data compression in many businesses
D. Data interchange in many businesses
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CCNT
Exam Name: TIA (Convergent Network Technologies)
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Total Q&A: 1056 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Direct Inward Dialing uses:
A. Key system lines.
B. Loop start functionality.
C. Digital key systems.
D. Trunks.
Answer: D

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NO.2 If you want to track the cost of long distance calls, the feature you use is called:
A. SMDR
B. CAR
C. LLCR
D. LCR
Answer: A

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NO.3 Cellular subscribers represent:
A. Only 5 percent of the total voice users.
B. The largest growth in absolute numbers over the last decade.
C. A declining segment of the telecommunications market.
D. The most exciting area of Internet access innovation.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Universal service and interconnection are goals of:
A. IXCs.
B. Public policy in the United States.
C. The FCC.
D. Congress.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A PBX can provide multiple:
A. Billing systems.
B. Entry points.
C. Trunk groups.
D. Power supplies
Answer: C

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NO.6 An 8 by 4 key system would have:
A. Eight lines.
B. Eight trunks.
C. Eight stations.
D. Four stations.
Answer: C

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NO.7 The point of demarcation divides:
A. The central office from the network.
B. Network responsibility and subscriber responsibility.
C. Local networks and long-distance networks.
D. IXC POP switch and CO switch.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A trunk is:
A. A T1.
B. A connection between a key system and a switch.
C. A connection between two switches.
D. A connection between a switch and a STP.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Telecommunications is:
A. The use of a telephone or similar equipment for voice communication.
B. The practice of transporting a signal, often through a switch, typically using voice
communications technology.
C. Communications at a distance.
D. The designing of a telephone network calling area.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A PBX can select the most economical trunk group using:
A. Translations.
B. Least cost routing.
C. Automatic selection lists.
D. Account code routing.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The LEC service that provides PBX like features from the LEC switch is:
A. Centrex.
B. SMDR.
C. Off-premise extensions.
D. Off-premise switching.
Answer: A

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NO.12 An in-band signal used by station sets is:
A. Loop start.
B. TT, or DTMF.
C. Rotary dial.
D. E&M.
Answer: B

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NO.13 CPE is:
A. Owned by the ILEC.
B. Owned by a CLEC.
C. Owned or leased by the end user.
D. Provided by the IXC.
Answer: C

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NO.14 The three parts of the PSTN are switching, access, and:
A. CPE.
B. PBX.
C. Trunking.
D. Transmission.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A telephone is called a:
A. Station set.
B. Message oriented device.
C. Key device.
D. Simple port.
Answer: A

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NO.16 An OPX is:
A. An outside party line.
B. A station set on a different premise than the PBX.
C. An outside priority extension call.
D. Onside parameter exchange.
Answer: C

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NO.17 A connection between a phone and a switch is called a:
A. T1.
B. Trunk.
C. Line.
D. Wire.
Answer: C

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NO.18 The CO switch provides power for:
A. Analog station sets.
B. Digital station sets.
C. Tie lines.
D. Key service units.
Answer: A

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NO.19 The MFJ:
A. Deregulated PBXs.
B. Deregulated premise wiring.
C. Created the RBOCs.
D. Created the Bell System.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A PBX is:
A. A switch.
B. A simplified line sharing device.
C. An analog multiplexer.
D. Owned by the telco.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Call appearance buttons allow the management of multiple:
A. Calls.
B. Station sets.
C. Display colors.
D. Analog modems
Answer: B

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NO.22 A few lines serve multiple users using a:
A. PBX.
B. CO switch.
C. Multiplexer.
D. Key system.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Commercial long distance telephony began in:
A. 1938.
B. 1811.
C. 1881.
D. 1876.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Tie trunks are not switched by:
A. The telco.
B. The PBX.
C. The premise switch.
D. Using LCR.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which of the following technologies are changing our view of telecommunications?
A. Transistor, computers, and fiber optics
B. Satellite and submarine technology
C. Computers and communications
D. Cell and PCS phones, and the Web browser
Answer: D

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NO.26 The public switched telephone network (PSTN) is defined by:
A. Direct trunk access to the called party.
B. Private leased lines.
C. Long-distance connection.
D. Dial-up access
Answer: D

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NO.27 The transistor, stored program control, and digital technologies enabled:
A. The Internet.
B. Universal service.
C. Deregulation of telecommunications.
D. International calling.
Answer: B

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NO.28 The device that controls the operation of the key telephone system is called:
A. Central control.
B. A call processor.
C. A key service unit.
D. The system controller.
Answer: C

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NO.29 In a key system, direct access means:
A. Callers can access an outside line.
B. Callers access an outside line using "dial 9."
C. Callers access an outside line without using an attendant.
D. Callers access an outside by pressing a button.
Answer: D

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NO.30 DC signaling is used by analog sets for:
A. In-band signaling.
B. Supervisory signaling.
C. Ringing.
D. Touchtone signaling
Answer: C

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